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just now reading through this thread and lol, you destroyed dude and then I destroyed him again! Haha
Yessir!
just now reading through this thread and lol, you destroyed dude and then I destroyed him again! Haha
Everyone knew GSP was coming back to fight Bisping because it was an easy opportunity to get the MW belt and we all knew that he had no plans to defend it.
GSP denied it repeatedly saying he would defend the MW belt if he wins it and saying it was in his contract that he had to defend the belt - blah blah blah.
Then he beats Bisping and shortly after says he has ulcerative colitis so he can’t defend the belt. Whittaker was up next.
Y’all consider that an “official” duck by GSP? I do.
https://www.mmafighting.com/2017/8/...iddleweight-title-if-he-beats-michael-bisping
He beat a defending champion. It is what it is. With that logic people who won belts from short notice fights aren’t champs either. If it makes you feel better, Shields was ranked top 5 mw when st Pierre beat him. Shields was only a year removed from the Henderson defense.i don't consider gsp a two-weight champ. one fight beating the champion doesn't make you a champion to me. you have to fight contenders before and then fight the champion to become a true champion. i mean damn, even at least one contender before lol.
it's all marketing by the ufc. and gsp knew it. he knew that one win over bisping would give him that title. he didn't want to compete. he simply wanted the title.
I was at MSG the night he won the belt. I immediately knew he would never defend it. Turns out I was right.
1. Yes, GSP cherry-picked the weakest MW champion in more than a decade.
2. Yes, most people knew he wouldn't fight the legit top MWs. There's a reason Dana put a mandatory-defense clause in his contract.
3. Why are we re-litigating this 6 years later? GSP is one of the GOATs. He had an amazing career. His double-champ status is a little dubious, but who cares?
Conor doesn't like youi don't consider gsp a two-weight champ. one fight beating the champion doesn't make you a champion to me. you have to fight contenders before and then fight the champion to become a true champion. i mean damn, even at least one contender before lol.
it's all marketing by the ufc. and gsp knew it. he knew that one win over bisping would give him that title. he didn't want to compete. he simply wanted the title.
Factually, he is a two-division champ. There's really no "consider" about it. Obviously, there's levels to this. For example, GSP moving up and beating one-eye Bisping isn't the same as BJ moving up and destroying then-GOAT Hughes. Or Nunes smashing Cyborg. GSP's two-division-champ status is towards the bottom of the list. On the other hand, at least he actually beat a champion to earn his second belt, as opposed to guys who fought for vacant title against very flawed non-champions (Henry and Jones).well, it does mean something if some people still consider gsp a two-time champ, which i personally don't.
Its like GroundHog day in here of late.This whole thread:
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Its like GroundHog day in here of late.
You’ve used the term “mentally masterbate” 5 times in this thread.
What’s the deal?
What's next, Greasegate revisited? Lol
one fight beating the champion doesn't make you a champion to me.
You're being obtuse. He's not using logic in the technical sense in which it designates a field of study in the academic discipline of philosophy, or mathematical logic. Nor is he using logic in the sense of breaking down arguments into neatly organized sets of premises and conclusions, or formal symbolization, or analysis of the validity-soundness of arguments.
He's using logic in the vernacular, informal sense in which it designates roughly something like "the pattern of reasoning/justification that one gives for believing that p, including the reasons for p and consequences of p". These patterns of reasoning and justification can operate informally in all ways, by analogy, deduction, induction, etc.
I know it is tempting to lecture everybody on what "logic really is" since the term is used ambiguously and loosely. But it comes across as silly and pretentious.
There is such a thing as the vernacular use of the word "logic", which is not the same as the technical sense of the word, as I explained. This is not to say that there are two kinds of logic.
Also, what "facts" are is hardly uncontroversial. Some take them to be ontological valences modelled in analogy with propositional states. Others, like nominalist monists (Sellars), think they are discursive artifacts, and that nature has no propositional form.
"Speculation" designates an action, not a set of non-actualized possible worlds or states of affairs. What may have happened or has happened is not "logical" or "illogical" anymore than a fact regarding an actual state of affairs is 'logical' or illogical. There are facts about possibilities as well, (e.g. "I could have eaten a hamburger for lunch" is a fact, if the sentence is true) so the distinction is not where you draw it. Speculation is reasoning regarding the possible, and may be logically valid or sound.
For someone who claims to have studied philosophy you sure don't seem particularly bright.