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so you don't even know what scripture they are referring to, are not curious enough to ask and yet still make the claim that it is not in there?
i don't really have an opinion on this and haven't looked into it that deep. many scholars believe it is a direct prescription for abortion but of course there will be apologist doing everything they can to make it sound like that is not the case.
this comes after drinking the prescribed drink offered by the priest.
Numbers chapter 5
Here the priest is to put the woman under this curse—“may the LORD cause you to become a curse among your people when he makes your womb miscarry and your abdomen swell. May this water that brings a curse enter your body so that your abdomen swells or your womb miscarries.” Then the woman is to say, “Amen. So be it.” (NIV)
I've read the Bible and understand enough to know it isnt there.
And Lol. You need to read the verses before that.
It talks about the priest taking a woman accused of adultery and giving her bitter waters. If shes innocent then she will be fine, but if she's guilty her thigh will rot and belly swell.
Then the priest shall put the woman under oath and say to her, “If no other man has had sexual relations with you and you have not gone astray and become impure while married to your husband, may this bitter water that brings a curse not harm you. 20 But if you have gone astray while married to your husband and you have made yourself impure by having sexual relations with a man other than your husband”— 21 here the priest is to put the woman under this curse
No one could get abortion out of that text if they read the whole thing. Now if she was unfaithful and lies about it then she will be cursed to be sick and miscarriage.
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