Yeah, and the First World countries that retained greater commitment to unionization and to progressive taxes very clearly and undeniably saw great economic equality. That's why Western and Northern Europe don't have the same distributional makeup as we do.
Look up economic inequality in Denmark/Sweden/Norway, then look it up in UK/Germany, and then go to the United States.
The difference between those countries and ours? You guessed it: progressive taxes/lack of regressive cuts, comparatively high union membership, and use of those to fund social democratic programs. And since
@LogicalInsanity cosigned your (still completely unsupported) post, you can both observe the correlation preceding the onset of meaningful automation.
Well, if persons are not morons they can look up the ultra-tight correlations themselves.
Still waiting on that top five, chief. That is, if you can muster anything other than generalities and vague nods to spuriousness and other reasons. Heck, you couldn't even come up with one that I hadn't explicitly and preemptively dismissed last time.