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The difference is in a combination of factors. Bone density, size of pelvic inlet, molar size etc.. and only then, in a very highly unlikely hypothetical scenario where the skeletons are perfectly preserved and perfectly arranged, accounting for cartilage etc.. the anthropologists will be able to tell that it is "likely" that this skeleton was male or female. They wont be able to tell you that its an "absolute certainty" that the skeleton was of one biological sex or another. There have been examples of females with skeletal structures exhibiting features (like smaller pelvic inlets) that would on their own be identified as likely belonging to a male, and vice versa.
Like I said, its a nuanced subject and maybe instead of mocking someone who spent years studying this nuanced subject, you could shut you dumb fucking mouth and LISTEN to that person. That is of course if you are genuinely interested in the answer (which we both know, you aren't).
Run along now
"Absolute Certainty"...LOL
99.99% sure, and you're arguing for the .01%.
At the end of the day, you are arguing that there are no discernible differences between the male and female skeletal structure by and large, because of a minute select few examples of outliers.
Yeah, and males and females don't actually exist, because there are six or seven freaks of nature out there rocking a vag and a cock. Brilliant.