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That doesn't logically follow at all.
How does the very real history of the Ottomans capturing Byzantium and renaming it to Istanbul in any way resemble this very odd hypothetical where FYROM illegally invades Greece and starts penciling in a new origin story for Alexander the great in the history text books (which no one will read other than them)?
Edit: Perhaps i should clarify. I was implying that Greece cannot lay claim to Istanbul. They won the war and it's theirs now, that's how history works. But if FYROM did indeed do what you are describing than no i would not like that and it would probably result in a war...It also wouldn't be a pretty outcome for FYROM though.
Ya, strike that "Alexander was a Slav" argument, it was dumb. It is obviously a pure hypothetical but if FYROM did win a war against Greece and took all of the territories of Macedon and held it for generations like the Turks have done to Constantinople, you would accept it as belonging to them?