WTF are you talking about.
Hey, let's do a recap, shall we?
I started off by saying the following:
- If courts can institute a nationwide injunction, these people are protected until the legality can be settled.
- If courts can't institute a nationwide injunction, Trump can do said illegal thing to any of those people who aren't actively part of a lawsuit against the US government for this issue.
These statements are factually accurate.
Then you came in and quoted the above post and stated:
That's actually not what was just decided. What the decision says is that if a lower court issues a ruling for that group of people (who brought that lawsuit), it only applies to THAT group of people and not nationwide.
As you can see, the problem begins right away with you not understanding what the fuck you're responding to. Because my statement was in response to another poster, in which I was illustrating the differences between how the injunctions worked
prior to the SCOTUS decision, and how they work
after the SCOTUS decision.
Furthermore, your statement was literally just a repeat of what the second part of my statement said.
Then you proceed to harp on about what would happen if one district court issued a nationwide injunction, and then another issued a nationwide injunction "the complete opposite way".
So what if a district court in Atlanta rules one way and issues a nationwide injunction and at the same time another district court in Portland issues a nationwide injunction ruling the complete opposite way? Who takes precedence?
Let's pause here for a moment and acknowledge the fact that you are arguing about nationwide injunctions here (and in several other posts). It's important to remember this for later.
So anyway, your post makes no sense, because there's no such thing as a court "issuing a nationwide injunction the complete opposite way". Regardless, I informed you that the nationwide injunction halting the executive order takes precedence. You will spend the next few posts bewildered by this statement.
You then post the following, trying to illustrate your whole "what if another court issues a nationwide injunction the complete opposite way":
A plaintiff brings a court case to get an injunction but the judge rules against the plaintiff and says no. That's the ruling.
I then tell you that this is not called an injunction, and that the actual injunction by the other court takes precedence, at which point you edit your post to something completely different:
A local court essentially cannot give a NATIONWIDE injunction.
They can only rule for their case and plaintiffs only. That's what this Supreme Court case just decided.
Knowing you don't have a leg to stand on, you decide to pivot towards acting like you've always been talking about how nationwide injunctions are no longer allowed, and are just confused as to why I don't get that, even though the first fucking post you responded to of mine was literally me discussing said ruling.
And now let's pause again so we can acknowledge the pivot from discussing the pros and cons of nationwide injunctions, to attempting to edit your post to make it seem like you've always been talking about how nationwide injunctions aren't allowed anymore.
If two local district courts in two different cities have opposite rulings why should one city's court have precedence?
Example:
5 trans students in New York City sue in federal court saying taking away transition drugs for minors is unconstitutional.
8 trans students in Dallas Texas also sue in their federal court to get transition drugs for minors.
New York rules in favor of the students allowing drugs. Dallas Texas says no drugs for minors.
New York would be completely out of bounds making a nationwide ruling affecting the whole country overruling the Dallas court.
This is false equivalency. The New York and Texas courts' decisions do not affect anybody outside of their respective jurisdictions. Trump's EOs affect the entire country, ergo an injunction is
necessarily nationwide.