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I always hear when it comes to any sort of testing or discrepancy in testing results, people say---- "When you control for Socioeconomic status" magically everyone is always equal on everything in the world. I say that sarcastically because it seems every time test scores, IQ, etc come up and minorities test lower, you have people say well everything is basically level if you control for SES.
Does controlling for SES mean that if poor people were to grow up in middleclass homes and have the benefits of middleclass upbringing, that test scores, IQ, etc would be more equal?
If it does mean that, then that seems ok if I wanted to write a book or something but it seems to have very little meaning in the real world. The fact is poor people don't get the same upbringing as middleclass people so they and we all have to suffer/deal with the lower scores, IQ, etc.
It's almost like people try and say---well if every one was magically on equal footing, then we would all be basically equal in intellect, etc. But the real world is not a magically equal place.
Is it just an excuse or a reason besides genes (genetics, or saying one group is dumber than the other) to say why poor people score lower and have lower IQ's?
Are they basically saying that poor people/blacks/whites/minorities/women/whoever are stupid because they are poor, not because they are genetically inferior?
Please let's keep the conversation on the up and up. I am looking for scientific answers to the SES question.
Does controlling for SES mean that if poor people were to grow up in middleclass homes and have the benefits of middleclass upbringing, that test scores, IQ, etc would be more equal?
If it does mean that, then that seems ok if I wanted to write a book or something but it seems to have very little meaning in the real world. The fact is poor people don't get the same upbringing as middleclass people so they and we all have to suffer/deal with the lower scores, IQ, etc.
It's almost like people try and say---well if every one was magically on equal footing, then we would all be basically equal in intellect, etc. But the real world is not a magically equal place.
Is it just an excuse or a reason besides genes (genetics, or saying one group is dumber than the other) to say why poor people score lower and have lower IQ's?
Are they basically saying that poor people/blacks/whites/minorities/women/whoever are stupid because they are poor, not because they are genetically inferior?
Please let's keep the conversation on the up and up. I am looking for scientific answers to the SES question.