Law California judge blocks law requiring Trump to submit tax returns to compete in state's 2020 primary

It is, but so is a President actively trying so hard to block the release of his taxes. Why is he so different than every president before him?

Why should he have to go to such lengths to block something that he is not required to release?

You can argue precedent all day long, but the bottom line is, it's not a requirement. If they're gonna do it, they should force every elected official to release theirs. It's hilarious how you have these people in government acting all high and mighty about this. They'd be the first to cry "Tyranny!" if Trump was trying to pass laws that forced them to release their tax returns.
 
I wonder how much he got paid
 
Why should he have to go to such lengths to block something that he is not required to release?

You can argue precedent all day long, but the bottom line is, it's not a requirement. If they're gonna do it, they should force every elected official to release theirs. It's hilarious how you have these people in government acting all high and mighty about this. They'd be the first to cry "Tyranny!" if Trump was trying to pass laws that forced them to release their tax returns.
I know you take Trumps side 100% of the time, so any curiosity goes out the window.
 
Don’t know why he doesn’t just release them.

He obviously hasn’t got anything to hide

To rattle the left and drive them insane.
 
It is, but so is a President actively trying so hard to block the release of his taxes. Why is he so different than every president before him?

Because he isn't nearly as wealthy as he pretends to be. That's all there is to it. I've mentioned before we KNOW Obama had his taxes gone through with a fine-toothed comb looking for ANYTHING illegal during the last election cycle. Of this there is no doubt, unless you're clueless, I guess. If there was anything earth-shattering aside from that, it would have "leaked" prior to the election. Hell, Harry Reid admitted they were (illegally) looking at them back in 2016. lol

It's a waste of time, money and energy for the left though, so have at it.
 
On what basis could they make that case? I don't think there are even any major pre-ratification documents arguing such a position.

Going down the practical avenue: to my knowledge all states have concrete restrictions/thresholds specifying which presidential candidates can appear on their ballots in November. Otherwise we'd end up with perhaps 200 candidates' names printed on the ballot. Unless I'm missing something, people could still vote for Trump in CA by writing Trump's name in.

This part from US v. Cruikshank comes to mind.

The people of the United States resident within any State are subject to two governments: one State, and the other National; but there need be no conflict between the two. The powers which one possesses, the other does not. They are established for different purposes, and have separate jurisdictions. Together they make one whole, and furnish the people of the United States with a complete government, ample for the protection of all their rights at home and abroad. True, it may sometimes happen that a person is amenable to both jurisdictions for one and the same act. Thus, if a marshal of the United States is unlawfully resisted while executing the process of the courts within a State, and the resistance is accompanied by an assault on the officer, the sovereignty of the United States is violated by the resistance, and that of the State by the breach of peace, in the assault. So, too, if one passes counterfeited coin of the United States within a State, it may be an offence against the United States and the State: the United States, because it discredits the coin; and the State, because of the fraud upon him to whom it is passed. This does not, however, necessarily imply that the two governments possess powers in common, or bring them into conflict with each other. It is the natural consequence of a citizenship which owes allegiance to two sovereignties, and claims protection from both. The citizen cannot complain, because he has voluntarily submitted himself to such a form of government. He owes allegiance to the two departments, so to speak, and within their respective spheres must pay the penalties which each exacts for disobedience to its laws. In return, he can demand protection from each within its own jurisdiction.

The government of the United States is one of delegated powers alone. Its authority is defined and limited by the Constitution. All powers not granted to it by that instrument are reserved to the States or the people. No rights can be acquired under the constitution or laws of the United States, except such as the government of the United States has the authority to grant or secure. All that cannot be so granted or secured are left under the protection of the States.

We now proceed to an examination of the indictment, to ascertain whether the several rights, which it is alleged the defendants intended to interfere with, are such as had been in law and in fact granted or secured by the constitution or laws of the United States.

The first and ninth counts state the intent of the defendants to have been to hinder and prevent the citizens named in the free exercise and enjoyment of their "lawful right and privilege to peaceably assemble together with each other and with other citizens of the United States for a peaceful and lawful purpose." The right of the people peaceably to assemble for lawful purposes existed long before the adoption of the Constitution of the United States. In fact, it is, and always has been, one of the attributes of citizenship under a free government. It "derives its source," to use the language of Chief Justice Marshall, in Gibbons v. Ogden, 9 Wheat. 211, "from those laws whose authority is acknowledged by civilized man throughout the world." It is found wherever civilization exists. It was not, therefore, a right granted to the people by the Constitution. The government of the United States when established found it in existence, with the obligation on the part of the States to afford it protection. As no direct power over it was granted to Congress, it remains, according to the ruling in Gibbons v. Ogden, id. 203, subject to State jurisdiction. Only such existing rights were committed by the people to the protection of Congress as came within the general scope of the authority granted to the national government.

The first amendment to the Constitution prohibits Congress from abridging "the right of the people to assemble and to petition the government for a redress of grievances." This, like the other amendments proposed and adopted at the same time, was not intended to limit the powers of the State governments in respect to their own citizens, but to operate upon the National government alone. Barron v. The City of Baltimore, 7 Pet. 250; Lessee of Livingston v. Moore, id. 551; Fox v. Ohio, 5 How. 434; Smith v. Maryland, 18 id. 76; Withers v. Buckley, 20 id. 90; Pervear v. The Commonwealth, 5 Wall. 479; Twitchell v. The Commonwealth, 7 id. 321; Edwards v. Elliott, 21 id. 557. It is now too late to question the correctness of this construction. As was said by the late Chief Justice, in Twitchell v. The Commonwealth, 7 Wall. 325, "the scope and application of these amendments are no longer subjects of discussion here." They left the authority of the States just where they found it, and added nothing to the already existing powers of the United States.

The particular amendment now under consideration assumes the existence of the right of the people to assemble for lawful purposes, and protects it against encroachment by Congress. The right was not created by the amendment; neither was its continuance guaranteed, except as against congressional interference. For their protection in its enjoyment, therefore, the people must look to the States. The power for that purpose was originally placed there, and it has never been surrendered to the United States.

The right of the people peaceably to assemble for the purpose of petitioning Congress for a redress of grievances, or for any thing else connected with the powers or the duties of the national government, is an attribute of national citizenship, and, as such, under the protection of, and guaranteed by, the United States. The very idea of a government, republican in form, implies a right on the part of its citizens to meet peaceably for consultation in respect to public affairs and to petition for a redress of grievances. If it had been alleged in these counts that the object of the defendants was to prevent a meeting for such a purpose, the case would have been within the statute, and within the scope of the sovereignty of the United States. Such, however, is not the case. The offence, as stated in the indictment, will be made out, if it be shown that the object of the conspiracy was to prevent a meeting for any lawful purpose whatever.

If one views running for office as a right inherent to a government of and by the people, then candidacy for federal office would put that right under federal purview.
 
If one views running for office as a right inherent to a government of and by the people, then candidacy for federal office would put that right under federal purview.
One can take the position that running for office is an inherent right of the people.

If we assume for sake of argument that this is a legitimate "right", we are still left with the fact that the Constitution does not grant the federal government any authority to limit, expand or otherwise regulate that "right".
 
One can take the position that running for office is an inherent right of the people.

If we assume for sake of argument that this is a legitimate "right", we are still left with the fact that the Constitution does not grant the federal government any authority to limit, expand or otherwise regulate that "right".

The Constitution both grants and protects rights for all concerned. Did you read that quote? Please explain why the concepts wouldn't apply here, a situation where the list of requirements to run for the office is included. Why wouldn't it be the federal government's job to ensure our rights in a federal process are upheld?
 
I don't get why California cares anyway. It's not like any republican has a shot at winning here. What's the point in all this?

Oh yeah to waste tax dollars. It's what California's politicians do best.
 
I know you take Trumps side 100% of the time, so any curiosity goes out the window.

So you dismiss any facts he (@HereticBD ) provides just 'cause you don't care what he has to say.

You really want a leftist echo-chamber, don't you?

Maybe there should be a thread where only Leftists can post and there they can give each other reach-arounds and shit while bashing anything and everything Trump.... It's an idea, you know. :eek:
 
So you dismiss any facts he (@HereticBD ) provides just 'cause you don't care what he has to say.

You really want a leftist echo-chamber, don't you?

Maybe there should be a thread where only Leftists can post and there they can give each other reach-arounds and shit while bashing anything and everything Trump.... It's an idea, you know. :eek:
What facts? I had already acknowledged that it's just tradition, not a legal requirement. I suppose you lack curiosity as well.
 
The Constitution both grants and protects rights for all concerned. Did you read that quote? Please explain why the concepts wouldn't apply here, a situation where the list of requirements to run for the office is included. Why wouldn't it be the federal government's job to ensure our rights in a federal process are upheld?
Because your quote wasn't about the federal government in general, it was specified as being to petition Congress for grievances, this isn't the same as running for office or for the criteria to run for office.

I also would say that the Candidate for Presidency is a state run office since the votes of the people don't count nationally they only count statewide. The votes of the electors would be what counts nationally.
 
Because your quote wasn't about the federal government in general, it was specified as being to petition Congress for grievances, this isn't the same as running for office or for the criteria to run for office.

How does that matter?
 
Because you can't say that a judgement based on addressing Congress is a judgement for all things about federal vs state.

Nobody made that claim. Nor does the applicability of the reasoning of the court depend on it. Do you dispute either the right to run for office or that federal elections are a federal concern?
 
Nobody made that claim. Nor does the applicability of the reasoning of the court depend on it. Do you dispute either the right to run for office or that federal elections are a federal concern?
The reasoning of the court was specifically about addressing Congress so that reasoning doesn't apply to running for President. Nobody is preventing Anyone from running for President with this law, it only prevents someone's name from appearing on the ballot.

And no appearing on a ballot isn't a right, rights are inherent and aren't something you have to pay for as many states require candidates to pay a fee to have their names on a ballot.
 
What facts? I had already acknowledged that it's just tradition, not a legal requirement. I suppose you lack curiosity as well.

At least I don't lack common sense like some people I know...... <LordRoose>
 
Back
Top