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Well, I would disagree that a lack of an obvious claimant to the stolen land undoes or mitigates any injustice (I also think a whole lot of deontological libertarians would have bones to pick here as well), but that's getting off track. The point isn't about finding a solution or compensating losers, but trying to find a point where accusations of force are no longer a relevant factor in an exchange of land.
I'm well aware that all land was, at some point, essentially stolen--this actually its nicely into the example I was trying to make: We know that, going far enough back, much land that is now occupied by people was seized by force at one point from another group of people. Assuming that one doesn't find the previous example of the exchange between the warlord and the first buyer as legitimate, we can infer that there is a point between "land stolen thousands of years ago" and "land stolen last week/month/year" where the "stolen" part no longer matters (or, at least, is no longer relevant) to the current occupant.
Well just to be clear I'm not suggesting that the situation excuses the injustice, as much as the problem is there without a solution if no claimant exists otherwise.
To your bigger concern though, that threshold of where the stolen property matters isn't a gray area. It's a definable one, where a claimant can prove a connection to the land that was stolen. It's easier for me to prove empirically, circumstantially, or otherwise that my car, which a car thief stole and sold, is actually mine, than it would be for someone five generations removed to prove a piece of land was once stolen from his great great grandfather that he intended to pass down as an heirloom to him.