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I know what he is arguing. I'm explaining why it is completely incorrect. First, the data completely contradicts his assumptions. Second, he is wrong on what the terms represent and how they are used.
It's like someone saying "Dogs make the best clouds". Then I explain that dogs are not clouds so it's impossible to qualify them as the "best" or the "worst" clouds. That doesn't mean I don't understand what he's saying, it means what he's saying is wrong. Debating if dogs are the best clouds requires me to accept a completely erroneous premise as true.
Similarly, debating the theory he put forward requires me to accept several completely erroneous premises as true. I can't do that when I know that the data contradicts his premises at every stage.
That and 1% = 1% = 1% no matter how many exponents or generations you throw into a calculation. That’s why the number of kids someone has ... no wait I am not going to explain it again, those like u that can, already get it.
Please tell me what is wrong with this argument. And what completely erroneous premises I use.
In 1950, you have a upper class 1%, a middle class of 49%, and a lower class of 50%
we have already established in this thread, that social class (wealth and income) directly affect the reproduction rates. So there is a differing factor that you multiple the original base population against. Then you multiple that further by a set number of generations.
So for 5 generations we would have this:
the upper class (1 x 2) 5 = 10
middle class (49 x 2.5) 5 = 612.5
lower class (50 x 3) 5 750
Add this up, and after 5 generations, the new total population is 1,372.
the 1% is now .007%
the 49% becomes 44%
the 50% becomes 54%
Do you guys not see this simple math? I am being generous with this reproduction rate factor. And it has been more than 5 generations, further pushing that disparity.
Moreover, in order to form the new 1% as generations go by, you have to lump people from the middle class now into the upper 1% because it shrunk down to .007%, and you now need to compensate. That does not even account for the disparity in wealth from those in the 2-50% wealth category.
I mean, you can show me teen birth rate statistics all you want, but this is simple math.
edit: as well as I also showed two graphs that showed a fairly direct(inverse) correlation between the wealth gap and the population growth.
Not to mention you discount the world population, when in fact we are sending aid to dozens upon dozens of countries and accepting immigrants from those countries, and an influx of illegal people from those countries
I do not disagree that wealthy people use their money and capital to benefit themselves and those around them. But do not try and act like over population isnt a major factor in wealth disparity.
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