Thanks. The point I want to touch on is how to read the operative clause. SCOTUS recently ruled on that. They said that while the prefatory clause announces a purpose, it doesn't limit the scope of the operative clause. The individual right to keep and bear has been settled.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/District_of_Columbia_v._Heller
Yes, your understanding is on-point. If only everyone was as capable and willing to learn this shit, we'd save a ton of time and energy lol
The inclination is always to broadly interpret a protected right. The 9th Amendment would seem to support this idea that citizens should be favored and given the benefit of the doubt versus government. Better to let 1000 guilty men go free than to convict a single innocent man.
Which is why it should be assumed that the prefatory clause was not intended to limit the operative clause.
Citizens have a right to arm themselves for purposes involving militias. Logically speaking, this does not mean this specific purpose is the only purpose which would justify the right. This is logic 101 stuff. And if there was any doubt as to the framers' intent:
"The enumeration in the Constitution, of certain rights, shall not be construed to deny or disparage others retained by the people."
Logic, imo, is largely innate. Particularly logic 101 tier issues such as the 2nd A prefatory clause. Yet anti-gun advocates will argue against this logic. So at some point i begin to suspect dishonesty.
Everything the framers did was for a reason, down to the specific language used. Nothing was random. So the right to keep and bear arms; you have to appreciate that there's two different things going on there: keep and bear. And the framers intended to protect both of them, or else they would've just said "right to have arms" or "right to possess arms", etc. And if this right was limited to militias, they would've worded it as such. Simply rearrange the clauses
"A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed."
changed to
"The right of the people to keep and bear Arms, for a well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, shall not be infringed."
would eliminate the apparent conusion
The modification would suffice as the actual language required to support the anti-gun argument. And it could've easily been written, but the framers chose not to write it that way. They chose a more difficult wording, prefatory then operative and they did so for a reason and that reason is articulated in the Ninth Amendment. Beyond that, it's the objective logical deduction when reading the language. Y allows Z =/= A-X disallows Z
But people are people and some will be born with lesser ability than others and some will simply choose to be dishonest. Such is life