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The state laws that exist, which ban the formation of private militias prove that you are wrong regarding the 2nd.
http://legal-dictionary.thefreedictionary.com/Private+Militias
Supremacy Clause means that the US Constitution supersedes any state law in US Constitutional matters which means that the 2nd Amendment supersedes any state constitution or state statute or state caselaw precedent or state regulation. The question of what qualifies as a militia under the 2nd would be answered by regional US federal district and circuit courts which are all bound by the SCOTUS which is tasked with devotion to the US Constitution.
States' rights exist, and the hierarchy method of binding legal authority supports this, but when the issue involves a Constitutionally protected right then the State is put in its place as the beta to the Fed's alpha. Lest we forget the US Civil War which actually tested this
You are misunderstanding Miller. Miller tied the idea of gun ownership to militias, specified as the current military. That means it was for protection of the country, not protection from the government. Furthermore, in Dennis vs. the United States the Court made it clear that people do not have the right to take up arms against the government.
In Miller the court held that (a) states' rights aren't violated by US Constitutional law in issues of US Constitutional law, and (b) the 2nd Amendment's operative clause is conditional on its justification clause when it comes to military weaponry
In the absence of any evidence tending to show that possession or use of a "shotgun having a barrel of less than eighteen inches in length" at this time has some reasonable relationship to the preservation or efficiency of a well regulated militia, we cannot say that the Second Amendment guarantees the right to keep and bear such an instrument. Certainly it is not within judicial notice that this weapon is any part of the ordinary military equipment or that its use could contribute to the common defense. Aymette v. State, 2 Humphreys (Tenn.) 154, 158.
So no 2nd Amendment violation in this case because the prohibited weapon is not one which would normally be used in military defense.
That means it was for protection of the country, not protection from the government.

"A government of the people, by the people, for the people" and so ipso facto, protection of the government is protection of citizens first and foremost and this includes protection of citizens from government. Protection of citizens from government is why the Revolutionary War occurred and the DOI and US Constitution now exist in the first place
Nothing in the opinion implies that the 2nd Amendment defines the country as anything other than its citizenry nor is there any argument made that the 2nd applies to government rather than citizens.
"Miller tied the idea of gun ownership to militias, specified as the current military. That means it was for protection of the country, not protection from the government."
I'll ask you, what do you think "the country" consists of?
Unconditional faith in government by some is why constitutional protections are required for all
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