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This was my statement.
How far back in history are you going? Let us stay within the WWII period. 80% of British forces were fighting Germany in Europe. The threat came from Germany. Why is that so hard to understand? Americans had to commit 50% of their forces to Europe and the other 50% to the Pacific. The British did not have that luxury. - I'm correct!
* Britain did have secondary forces in North Africa for a period fighting Germans. Again, this was not a Main Effort from the British in fighting the Germans. A garrison of British troops was based in Egypt. Its main role was to defend the Suez Canal and protect Britain's oil supplies from the Persian Gulf. Same reason the Americans were there. The Italian Army was 'shit' in North Africa, that is why Germany had to send forces to help. Here is where the brilliant Erwin Rommel enters the scene on the side of Germany, but we shall save that for another thread.
Patton vs Montgomery:
Wrong, as usual. The US and allied forced operated under the Europe First or Germany First strategy.
"In 1944 and 1945, the balance of U.S. resources shifted heavily toward Europe as the Europe First strategy became a reality rather than just a stated objective. At war's end in Europe, the U.S. Army had 47 divisions in Europe and 21 divisions, plus 6 Marine Corps divisions, in the Pacific. 78% of Army and Army Air Force manpower was deployed against Germany versus 22% deployed in the Pacific."
Then, considering the Lend Lease act, it overwhelmingly favored the European powers.
The principal recipients of aid were the British Commonwealth countries (about 63 percent) and the Soviet Union (about 22 percent), though by the end of the war more than 40 countries had received lend-lease help. Much of the aid, valued at $49.1 billion, amounted to outright gifts.