How should a 10-8 be scored?

[sdpdude9]

So tonight brings up an important point about 10-8 rounds.

Should it be scored that way if one round was far more dominant the other rounds? For example, fighter A edges two rounds 10-9, but fighter rocks and nearly finishes him in a third round. Fighter b won his round far more convincingly, but not necessarily a totally blowout. Should it be a 10-8?

Or should it be a blanket criteria? You have to dominate the round to win. Nearly finishing opponent multiple times or completely controlling and beating opponent.

 

[Gilday]

Either a total blowout of a round or a near finish with no response from the opposing fighter

 

[Power!]

get rid of decisions


fight till knockout or submission

 

[Paolo Delutis]

Either a total blowout of a round or a near finish with no response from the opposing fighter

This..it litterally has to be a one way beat down to the point of that the end of the round horn is the only thing saving the opponent..from being stopped thats a 10-8 round..

Beating your opponent using technique or power shouldnt matter to the round win score 10-9 vs 10 -98 ..just the amount of success one fighter has vs the other should dictate the difference in the total scoring of the winning round

 

[SPB]

A 10 - 8 round should generally be sored 10 - 8.

 

[Kingz]

It’s gotta be a wipe out. One sided offensively with damage with little to no offense coming back from the other fighter. The 5th probably should’ve been a 10-8 but then why wasn’t round 2 a 10-8 for Whittaker? He destroyed Romero’s eye and completely dominated the round.

Round 3 was too back and forth. Yoel landed the best shots but was getting tagged with head kicks, knees to the body and punches the whole way as well. That can’t be a 10-8.

It’s 48-47 Whittaker or a draw. I’m fine with either. What wasn’t possible was a Romero victory via decision

The sport wasn’t ready for the new liberal use of 10-8 when there was no real understanding what one is supposed to be. Nobody would expect a 10-8 in this fight a couple of years ago when 10-8s were rare.

 

[dipstickjimmy]

Its a bit more subjective. Fighter A dominates a round for 4:30 and outlands his opponent 25-3 and in the last 30 seconds the opponent lands a shot that drops Fighter A who then holds on to the end of the round. Is that still a 10-9 for Fighter A? Is it a 10-8 for the opponent for a "Near Finish"? If I am dominated for 4:40 but then I slap on a near fight ending submission in the last 20 seconds but my opponent is saved by the bell is that a 10-8 for me based on a Near Finish? Go watch the first round of Tom Lawlor vs Aaron Simpson. That was a series of near finishes and a domination of an entire round. At the time it should have been a 10-8 and that was under the old rules but it was only scored a 10-9. That is a clear example of a 10-8 under the new criteria.

In baseball 4 solo home runs = one grand slam. The team with the one big inning gets the same points as the team that scores consistently.