How did the Arbitrator reach his conclusion in the Jones case?

I may be mistaken but in the legal system both parties pay for the arbitration jointly (in this case Jones and USADA?). I see that as a conflict of interest but it doesn’t appear to be a departure from the norm. At the same time I would assume the cost of arbitration is the same regardless of the ruling.
Except USADA doesn't pay, just Jon Jones and UFC, who are on the same side of the case. It should be UFC and USADA. UFC should make the decision whether to represent their fighter in arbitration against the case USADA has made against him. If they don't think they have a case, they can accept USADA's penalties. Wealthy fighters/athletes should not be able to buy a reduced sentence.
 
He checked whether the person in question was a big needle mover and finding that to be the case he made up a load of bullshit
Pretty much this. He made up his mind based on nothing but his feeling.

And to prove Jon's innocence further they had him snitch on his peers.

Great fucking work.
 
A well researched thread on sherdog?

McLaren also wrote that Jones "is not a drug cheat" in the dick pill decision, even though there was no evidence supporting that claim and circumstantial evidence even pointed in the opposite direction
 
"Q. How did the Arbitrator reach his conclusion in the Jones case?"

The bank deposit arrived, he checked it was for the agreed amount, so he then draw his conclusion that, hey Jonny did nothing wrong.
After that, he went out with his wife, and had a very expensive restaurant meal and had a red panty night.

Simple.
 
"Q. How did the Arbitrator reach his conclusion in the Jones case?"

The bank deposit arrived, he checked it was for the agreed amount, so he then draw his conclusion that, hey Jonny did nothing wrong.
After that, he went out with Jon, and did very expensive coke rails off of the asses of very expensive strippers.

Simple.

Fixed that last part for you:)
 
Both UFC and USADA equally and under no circumstances should Jon Jones be paying the judge. If you're going to appear in front of a judge in a court of law should you offer to pay him or would you get arrested for obstruction of Justice?
Why should usada pay for the cost of arbitration? They are a service provider.
 
Except USADA doesn't pay, just Jon Jones and UFC, who are on the same side of the case. It should be UFC and USADA. UFC should make the decision whether to represent their fighter in arbitration against the case USADA has made against him. If they don't think they have a case, they can accept USADA's penalties. Wealthy fighters/athletes should not be able to buy a reduced sentence.

I didn’t know that. If that’s true then it’s definitely a conflict of interest to have the arbitration fees solely paid for by parties who have the same vested interests. That appears to be a departure from legal norm.

Pretty much this. He made up his mind based on nothing but his feeling.

And to prove Jon's innocence further they had him snitch on his peers.

Great fucking work.

The arbitrators feelings are actually mentioned in the arbitration award.

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A well researched thread on sherdog?

McLaren also wrote that Jones "is not a drug cheat" in the dick pill decision, even though there was no evidence supporting that claim and circumstantial evidence even pointed in the opposite direction[/QUOTE

I try man.

Here's another cause for concern; facts relevant to determining the "level of fault" have been left out of the arbitration award. This isn't problematic from a legal standpoint but from the standpoint of determining the truth it is imperative that facts are not left out.

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He can only draw conclusions based on facts and evidence. It's not like sherdog, where people who fit a certain profile are guilty until proven innocent.
 
He can only draw conclusions based on facts and evidence. It's not like sherdog, where people who fit a certain profile are guilty until proven innocent.

Which facts? Which evidence? I just demonstrated that two of the so-called scientific arguments are not supported by scientific literature.
 
I didn’t know that. If that’s true then it’s definitely a conflict of interest to have the arbitration fees solely paid for by parties who have the same vested interests. That appears to be a departure from legal norm.
They might try to say that because the UFC hires USADA, then they represent USADA against Jon Jones in the court of arbitration but that is not the truth of the relationship.
 
Plz just get rid of usada.

We as fans deserve the greatest athletes science can give us - Kenny florian
 
They might try to say that because the UFC hires USADA, then they represent USADA against Jon Jones in the court of arbitration but that is not the truth of the relationship.
suppose it was nsac and ufc that paid? would it matter? they both still are better off with jon fighting. there's no party involved who is on the other "side". noone involved has a vested interest in jon getting a harsher penalty.
 
Why should usada pay for the cost of arbitration? They are a service provider.
You have probably signed many arbitration clauses with service providers. Check your phone or Internet agreement for instance.
 
you're not sure if 20-80 one trillionth of a gram of the metabolite can be concluded as "trace"?
 
I’m just tired of hearing that Jones was “scientifically proven innocent” when it doesn’t seem to be supported by any literature. For goodness sake the document even says that there is no corroborating scientific literature to support those notions.

The only person/people saying that are Jones (and Malki, although to be fair, Malki has been pretty quiet on the whole thing) and everyone knows Jones is full of shit.
 
You have probably signed many arbitration clauses with service providers. Check your phone or Internet agreement for instance.
again, why would usada pay for the cost of arbitration?
 
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