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Did he derive it himself? In the derivation, it's the relative velocity between inertial reference frames that matters. But, time is still a scalar.
not that is just an equation I took from online as reference for anyone here who wanted to reference it if they needed to.
what I am wondering is is there anything in my friend's comment that just seems sort of like he doesn't quite "get it". I mean when he said the part about light's speed vs its velocity it seemed to me like he was misunderstanding the nature of time dilation, like he was attributing something to it that was not really what makes it what it is. For instance in the classic man on moon watching two ships one shooting light to the other illustration, the phenomenon of time dilation would still hold even if light only made one leg of travel without changing direction at all. It seemed to me like my friend's comment was attributing the light changing its direction to what accounts for time dilation.