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Forget the actual world. This is a choice between 2 identical possible worlds. So I will repeat the post here since you misunderstood it. Hopefully you see it in a different light now.
"The ceteris paribus (i.e. all else equal) clause is there to keep everything constant except for the pain and suffering experienced by one family which is isolated from the rest of humanity. It is this difference, indeed the only difference there is between these two worlds, that we want to allow. We keep all else constant in these worlds up until the time when the family in one of the worlds become ill so we can base our judge on this difference (pain and suffering being grater in one of the worlds) alone.
Please answer me this, if you had to choose one of these two worlds to be your family, which world would you choose and why?
Or another formulation of the same question, given the choice would you choose a world where you will suffer the most pain or the world in which you suffer the least pain?"
If you are setting up two hypothetical worlds, one with more suffering, and one with less suffering, I will choose the one where there is less suffering. The obvious problem with your analogy is that you can't extrapolate this into the world as we know it, in addition to the fact that your metric of suffering is arbitrary.
You misunderstood here too, forget this world and concider only the two imaginary worlds.
By the same token since you lack omniscience you cannot know that a conceivable life in which you suffer horribly all your life will be worse than this one. This is absurd in both directions. I think you simply can't admit that it is possible for there to be a better world.
I can't know if a better world is possible in the event that God exists, especially since if God exists better is not subjective, but objective.
So we cannot reason morally if there is no god. The fact that we can reason morally is because there is a god? Sorry bro but this doesn't follow at all. We do reason morally whether or not god exists. Whether morality is objective or not we do engage in moral reasoning. I don't believe that morality is objective, but I can reason morally, I can see and understand first order moral claims and their differences regardless of whether or not there are second order differences. I can take the bible and understand the moral teachings in it whether or not there is a god.
Every respected Christian philosopher accepts that we can reason morally even if morality is relatively, they all understand that humans are moral agents. This language is used in philosophy by atheist and theist philosophers and is not controversial. I am surprised that you would attack these premises. The same for gratuitous evil or pain. This is not a meaningless term. Denying that the world contains gratuitous evil is one thing but denying any difference between gratuitous and evil that has a function or use is ignorant.
What I am saying is that if there is no God there is no absolute morality in the same sense. This is the classic is-ought problem. Morality is simply an evolutionary adaptation without God, and that doesn't mean that you can't reason within this model.
It appears as if it strives to survive. You are projecting purpose into the system. It is like saying that rain flows down mountains and rivers into the sea because it want to be reunited with it. Living systems merely adapt to the environment by accident and they continue reproduce. The environment sets the conditions and the mutation that is best adapted continues, the other die off. You cannot say they all strive to survive when the majority does not survive.
I said that life strives to survive, not that it is always successful. This striving seems purposeful and every mechanism follows this pattern. It's not meant to be anything more than an inductive, and subjective, argument. You can disagree with this.