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Well, because the concept of sexuality and having children coming from sin is a rather important distinction, don't you think? If they were able to have children before the Fall, then hypothetically they could have populated the earth with immortal offspring. I was just curious how some would address this issue. Conversely, if they were asexual, then there would have been no lineage and thus no Bible to tell. I understand that most consider the actual garden of God/Eden to be a mythological place, and some think of it as otherworldly - so Adam and Eve being banished on Earth as a punishment would mean this certainly wasn't the first choice for us.
I ask because these kinds of questions leave open certain holes. The very foundation of Christianity is based on sin. The concept of family, having children, having husband/wife and her being a servant to the man came from the first sin. Without the Fall, there is no Noah or Abraham, and certainly no Jesus.
I guess I'm at a loss as to why sex and reproduction between Adam and Eve is a sin or an "issue". Where is the basis biblically to declare family a result of original sin?