No it does not, because the definition of the word pecuniary, clearly states it does not.
Pecuniary is not the definition for subsidy. Pecuniary defines the type of direct aid that a subsidy is -- a direct pecuniary aid, or more simply, monetary aid.
I wasn't aware that even the definition of money was challenging for you, or more specifically, the term "relating to money." But I should've have learned by now not to overestimate your ability to comprehend even the most basic vocabulary.
What exactly is money?
Well, money is most commonly defined as: a current medium of exchange in the form of coins and banknotes; coins and banknotes collectively.
This is why most definitions for pecuniary simply refer to it as money:
Pecuniary: consisting of or measured in money
https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/pecuniary
What you've attempted to latch on to here is the secondary definition: of or relating to money
The reason you've done this is because the primary definition already proves quite clearly what pecuniary means (money.)
So why does the secondary definition say "relating to money"? What does that mean?
The reason why Merriam includes the secondary definition "relating to money", is because money cannot be defined simply as coins and bank notes, as there are other trading commodities in use in the past and now.
The etymological roots of "pecuniary" explain why Merriam includes the term "relating to money."
"Pecuniary first appeared in English in the early 16th century and comes from the Latin word
pecunia, which means
"money." Both this root and Latin
peculium, which means "
private property," are related to the Latin noun for
cattle,
pecus. In early times,
cattle were viewed as a trading commodity (as they still are in some parts of the world), and property was often valued in terms of cattle."
When Merriam uses the term "relating to money", they are referring to trading commodities that might be used in place of coins or bank notes. Some examples include cattle, or even stock options. What they all have in common, however, whether they are money or related to money, is that they are
private property.
Your erroneous and/or dishonest attempt to continuously try to conflate tax laws with money has to stop.
The definition "relating to money" does not refer to tax breaks. It refers to private property.
Which leads, again, to my argument all along: the government can't subsidize someone with their own money.
Subsidy: a grant or gift of money
https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/subsidy
Pecuniary: (1) consisting of or measured in money; (2) of or relating to money (i.e. private property that can be used as a trading commodity)
https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/pecuniary
Money: any circulating medium of exchange, including coins, paper money, and demand deposits.
http://www.dictionary.com/browse/money
Show me anywhere, in any of these definitions, where "tax break" is given in the definition, listed as a synonym, or found on a list of related words.
I'll save you the time. It isn't. Because a tax break isn't a subsidy. It isn't pecuniary aid. it isn't money. It isn't private property. It is a law. It is a law the forbids the government from taking money from a person or business. This is why it by definition can't be a subsidy, because a subsidy requires the government to take money from a person or business and give it to another person or business.