well one, the second amendment was centered on a restriction of the federal government in it's original application. which is why the preceding text is "A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State." the purpose of it being for states to protect themselves individually, either from the federal government itself or other foreign threats where the federal government would just say f it, you are on your own.
in fact, when the other bill of rights were incorporated in the 1930s, the second amendment was explicitly left out. it was only in the very recent gun cases penned by our conservative justices was the second amendment found to have rights in it that, quite frankly, were never there before.
from Heller v. DC and the exact words in the opinion from Scalia:
https://www.law.cornell.edu/supct/html/07-290.ZO.html
this was right at the beginning of section III.
you also have a lot of long term state regulations to compete with, b/c again the realm of gun regulations has been a states issue for 99% of our current history. and they have their own common law rules and interpretations for their own state constitutions and state laws. some may infringe (like an outright ban on handguns) while others are permissible (background checks or total prohibition for certain people like criminals).
your analogy to the taxation of churches, the infringement on religions expression is actually a rather tiny reason we do this. the primary reason is b/c churches are seen as a betterment to society - it's also why we tax exempt entities like non-profits. we also don't want the government being entangled in churches themselves and blurring the lines of the separation of church and state.
guns, on the other hand, and the constitutional reasons behind them, have a much murkier and bizarre implementation. which i hope explains why ordinary people interpret a very simplistic definition of the word "infringement" (which is actually not as rigid as it's made out to be) and why courts are wrestling with it to such degree.
so to answer your question no, i don't agree. but it also depends on the degree of the tax - if it's such that it puts an undue financial burden on citizens, then that's clearly an infringement.