Not the people that do the "GOAT LOL" schtick that was a self-parody within 24 hours. I see lots of SERIOUS talk about how likely he is to beat Aldo, and in the Conor=Sonnen thread I saw someone say Sonnen was top 5 but Conor is the clear #2. I don't get HOW on Earth he could be ranked #2 by any serious ranking system but nevermind the fact he doesn't have the resume to be ranked anywhere near #2... sell me on his skills. And I'm not unsellable and trolling to say "yeah he sucks." I am asking mostly because I don't know much in terms of striking and don't know what the fuss is about. My main point of reference is the Dustin fight. I don't get how it makes him #2. Granted Rogan INSTANTLY went into hype mode the second Dustin dropped and said "a fight he dominated every second of" and now Sherdog retroactively adopted that as a memory of the fight but... I don't understand how he dominated every second of the fight in the slightest. Unless a hook kick hitting the air is domination... both guys got tagged and it was essentially even prior to the KO. AGAIN NOW... I'm talking Rogan's notion of dominating before the KO so no "lol KO in the 1st isn't domination?" replies please. Did I miss something? What was sign of the domination? And what (SPECIFICALLY ABOUT THE STRIKING) showcases Conor as the "clear #2" that some people are saying. Again now... I CAN be converted if it makes sense, I just don't get what specifically striking-wise is setting up the notion of him being equal or above Aldo and I honestly don't think any outcome against Siver would fill us in more with that.