Media Merab pretended to be Conor McGregor so he can trick girl fan

This is more than being a weirdo, if he pretended to be Conor so he can trick some girl into sex with him, should be criminal. The way he tells it, is so creepy too.

Read his story.

He wasn't pretending to be Conor. The girl thought he was Conor first and after an hour asked him. He said yes, but I'm sure he came clean after the fact.
 
Read his story.

He wasn't pretending to be Conor. The girl thought he was Conor first and after an hour asked him. He said yes, but I'm sure he came clean after the fact.

If some girl asked me if I was someone I was not, I would not say I was that person to get with the girl. The decent human being thing to do is to tell the truth.

He pretended to be Conor. It’s different had the girl never asked him, and he tells the story like he’s proud of what he did.
 
Pretending to be a celebrity to get laid is not rape by deceit or rape by fraud. Rape by deceit as a criminal offence has no historical foundation within the common law and is entirely an offence created by statute and legislation, which is why most jurisdictions don’t even have a law on the books at all (eg “rape by deceit” isn’t even a crime in Canada at all).

The closest instance I was able to find for rape by deceit on the basis of giving a false identity was a somewhat archaic statute in California which criminalized a man having sex with a woman by pretending to be their husband. Other jurisdictions may have something similar, but either way that’s a pretty narrow, specific circumstance to attract criminal liability.

In order to criminalize rape by deceit on the basis of simple impersonation of someone else a given jurisdiction would need to have that written into their legislation, and while it’s possible that there may be some state or province in some country that actually does have that written into their local laws as a crime I’m not specifically aware of any. Odds are most lawmakers would be hesitant about codified such a crime in case of it being used against them in instances where they’ve lied about their own identities in order to get some side action without jeopardizing their marriages or political careers, lol.
 

I hope he’s joking, if not, it’s kind of rapey. There’s a lot of false identity sex crimes out there.

"I will tell you my one funny story. So I was in Spain. I was with [UFC featherweight champion] Ilia Topuria and his brother...So, of course, I was in a new country and I was chasing girls, you know. UFC not really popular there. But one girl did recognize me. And she said 'That's you!' I said 'Yes! Yes, it's me!

One hour later, she thinks I'm Conor McGregor. I say 'Yes, yes! (laughs) Yes I am Conor McGregor.' I'm very appreciative of Conor McGregor, you know. Worked out good. Everything, you know."


I dislike him more
 
Tbh hes a better fighter than Conor McGregor. The fact one would have to be pretend to be a worse version of themselves to get women is kind of fucked up if you think about it.
 
Tbh hes a better fighter than Conor McGregor. The fact one would have to be pretend to be a worse version of themselves to get women is kind of fucked up if you think about it.

Only other men care about how well you fight. Women care about your resources.
 
That's that eastern European charm. I liked merab more when I didn't know anything about him
<notimprezzed>
 
That girl had an ugly georgian manlet in front of her and decided to fuck him.

This is the real story here. Spanish chick somehow mistakes manlet honorary Mexican for Irishman king of manlets.
 
He pretended to be Conor. It’s different had the girl never asked him, and he tells the story like he’s proud of what he did.
The irony is, if it had been the real Conor, fair chance she would have been properly raped.
 
Pretending to be a celebrity to get laid is not rape by deceit or rape by fraud. Rape by deceit as a criminal offence has no historical foundation within the common law and is entirely an offence created by statute and legislation, which is why most jurisdictions don’t even have a law on the books at all (eg “rape by deceit” isn’t even a crime in Canada at all).

The closest instance I was able to find for rape by deceit on the basis of giving a false identity was a somewhat archaic statute in California which criminalized a man having sex with a woman by pretending to be their husband. Other jurisdictions may have something similar, but either way that’s a pretty narrow, specific circumstance to attract criminal liability.

In order to criminalize rape by deceit on the basis of simple impersonation of someone else a given jurisdiction would need to have that written into their legislation, and while it’s possible that there may be some state or province in some country that actually does have that written into their local laws as a crime I’m not specifically aware of any. Odds are most lawmakers would be hesitant about codified such a crime in case of it being used against them in instances where they’ve lied about their own identities in order to get some side action without jeopardizing their marriages or political careers, lol.

Yale law review has an interesting article on it. There are definitely other countries that have found very similar instances to be rape.

England when it come to gender and Israel when it came to lying about nationality.


New Jersey tried to prosecute someone for lying about their income for sex, but the jury found not guilty.

If consent is the main issue with rape though, using deception for sex should revoke that consent.

Fraud revokes consent for just about everything else.
 
When you go clout chasing and bring in Conor mcgregor from temu
 
Yale law review has an interesting article on it. There are definitely other countries that have found very similar instances to be rape.

England when it come to gender and Israel when it came to lying about nationality.


New Jersey tried to prosecute someone for lying about their income for sex, but the jury found not guilty.

If consent is the main issue with rape though, using deception for sex should revoke that consent.

Fraud revokes consent for just about everything else.

In any event, this Merpap guy or whoever (I haven’t watch UFC since 2020 so I have no idea who the fuck he is, I was summoned here by @TCE ) did not commit a criminal offense by making this girl think he was McGregor. And almost certainly not by Spanish legal standards as Spain apparently has notoriously weak sex assault laws (I just read about the “Wolfpack” rape case in trying to address the issue I was asked to weigh in on).
 
In any event, this Merpap guy or whoever (I haven’t watch UFC since 2020 so I have no idea who the fuck he is, I was summoned here by @TCE ) did not commit a criminal offense by making this girl think he was McGregor. And almost certainly not by Spanish legal standards as Spain apparently has notoriously weak sex assault laws (I just read about the “Wolfpack” rape case in trying to address the issue I was asked to weigh in on).

Damn, sorry Sherbro. Thought you was a UFC fan haha. Thought I'd tag ya because I know you're a lawyer.
 
This forum became a fucking CUCK parade at some point, jesus...
 
Pretending to be a celebrity to get laid is not rape by deceit or rape by fraud. Rape by deceit as a criminal offence has no historical foundation within the common law and is entirely an offence created by statute and legislation, which is why most jurisdictions don’t even have a law on the books at all (eg “rape by deceit” isn’t even a crime in Canada at all).

The closest instance I was able to find for rape by deceit on the basis of giving a false identity was a somewhat archaic statute in California which criminalized a man having sex with a woman by pretending to be their husband. Other jurisdictions may have something similar, but either way that’s a pretty narrow, specific circumstance to attract criminal liability.

In order to criminalize rape by deceit on the basis of simple impersonation of someone else a given jurisdiction would need to have that written into their legislation, and while it’s possible that there may be some state or province in some country that actually does have that written into their local laws as a crime I’m not specifically aware of any. Odds are most lawmakers would be hesitant about codified such a crime in case of it being used against them in instances where they’ve lied about their own identities in order to get some side action without jeopardizing their marriages or political careers, lol.
I'm not sure this is correct in Canada.

Per our SCC: https://www.canlii.org/en/ca/scc/doc/2014/2014scc19/2014scc19.html

" Per McLachlin C.J. and Rothstein, Cromwell and Wagner JJ.: The Criminal Code sets out a two-step process for analyzing consent to sexual activity. The first step is to determine whether the evidence establishes that there was no “voluntary agreement of the complainant to engage in the sexual activity in question” under s. 273.1(1) and it requires proof that the complainant did not voluntarily agree to the touching, its sexual nature, or the identity of the partner."

See also R v Brar: https://www.canlii.org/en/ab/abca/doc/2021/2021abca146/2021abca146.html

See also R v GC: https://www.canlii.org/en/on/onca/doc/2010/2010onca451/2010onca451.html

"[23] More importantly, there is nothing in the language of s. 265(1)(c) or the jurisprudence to suggest that only a mistake as to the identity of the sexual partner that is induced by fraud vitiates consent. Moreover, the appellant suggests no policy reason why an identity mistake caused by something else will not do. Indeed s. 273.1 suggests the opposite. It does not confine consent to voluntary agreement except where that is negated by an identity mistake due to fraud. Where the subjective state of mind of the complainant is that her consent hinged on the identity of her sexual partner, her mistake about that identity renders his conduct non-consensual, whether or not the mistake is induced by fraud. The presence or absence of fraud may however be significant to whether the Crown can prove that the accused did not have an honest belief that the complainant was consenting.

[24] Where, as here, the complainant’s consent to sexual activity depended on it being with a particular person, her mistake about the identity of that person whether induced by fraud or not, necessarily means that subjectively she did not voluntarily agree to the sexual activity that occurred with someone else. That is precisely what the trial judge found happened in this case. "
 
I hope he’s joking, if not, it’s kind of rapey. There’s a lot of false identity sex crimes out there.

LOL that is not rapey at all - maybe chicks shouldn't be fucking a guy just because she thinks he's Conor McGregor. How about some personal responsibility there?
 
I'm not sure this is correct in Canada.

Per our SCC: https://www.canlii.org/en/ca/scc/doc/2014/2014scc19/2014scc19.html

" Per McLachlin C.J. and Rothstein, Cromwell and Wagner JJ.: The Criminal Code sets out a two-step process for analyzing consent to sexual activity. The first step is to determine whether the evidence establishes that there was no “voluntary agreement of the complainant to engage in the sexual activity in question” under s. 273.1(1) and it requires proof that the complainant did not voluntarily agree to the touching, its sexual nature, or the identity of the partner."

See also R v Brar: https://www.canlii.org/en/ab/abca/doc/2021/2021abca146/2021abca146.html

See also R v GC: https://www.canlii.org/en/on/onca/doc/2010/2010onca451/2010onca451.html

"[23] More importantly, there is nothing in the language of s. 265(1)(c) or the jurisprudence to suggest that only a mistake as to the identity of the sexual partner that is induced by fraud vitiates consent. Moreover, the appellant suggests no policy reason why an identity mistake caused by something else will not do. Indeed s. 273.1 suggests the opposite. It does not confine consent to voluntary agreement except where that is negated by an identity mistake due to fraud. Where the subjective state of mind of the complainant is that her consent hinged on the identity of her sexual partner, her mistake about that identity renders his conduct non-consensual, whether or not the mistake is induced by fraud. The presence or absence of fraud may however be significant to whether the Crown can prove that the accused did not have an honest belief that the complainant was consenting.

[24] Where, as here, the complainant’s consent to sexual activity depended on it being with a particular person, her mistake about the identity of that person whether induced by fraud or not, necessarily means that subjectively she did not voluntarily agree to the sexual activity that occurred with someone else. That is precisely what the trial judge found happened in this case. "

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Neat. Well, I’ll defer to you as the expert on this issue, not me, as I’ve never practiced criminal law a day in my life other than going a few times in 1L as part of U of A law school’s Student Legal Services to do a summary disposition once and a charter challenge once.

Conceptually it absolutely makes sense from a vitiating consent perspective, but I wasn’t familiar with any jurisprudence on the issue, but then again those cases you cited are both newer than when I took 1L criminal law which was 16 years ago (I feel old now).
 

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