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"Ignorance of the law is no excuse" is a foundational building block of the law in Western societies.
Or is it?
The foundational nature of the premise was to ensure someone who committed a crime could not use the idea that they did not have the 'intent' to break any laws or 'knowledge' that such a law existed to avoid punishment for breaking the law. Intent and knowledge are key to this premise.
Intent is one of the hardest things in law to prove. Most law is based on another foundational block that guilt must be determined 'beyond a shadow of a doubt', and one can almost always create doubt around intent unless the person blatantly states their intent.
Thus why 'ignorance of the law is no excuse' was basically adopted as a governor to the issue of intent or lack of knowledge. It basically stated 'neither of those things, even if true, are going to allow you to avoid conviction'.
But in fact Ignorance of the Law being an excuse was protected at the highest levels in what might be classified as White collar crimes.
Gov't in particular has very clear requirements in many areas that regardless of what laws are ACTUALLY broken that 'intent' must be established or the offender cannot be convicted. This almost always provides a legal out for the offender even after a law has been determined clearly to be broken.
And that seems to be the clear intent.
So is the foundational premise of Ignorance of the law not being an excuse a sham? Something created to make sure the typical perpetrator of non white collar crimes (typically poorer) would never avoid conviction while at the same time ensuring there was an out for the typical offender of white collar crimes (wealthy or powerful), particularly those in gov't?
Do you care?
Or is it?
The foundational nature of the premise was to ensure someone who committed a crime could not use the idea that they did not have the 'intent' to break any laws or 'knowledge' that such a law existed to avoid punishment for breaking the law. Intent and knowledge are key to this premise.
Intent is one of the hardest things in law to prove. Most law is based on another foundational block that guilt must be determined 'beyond a shadow of a doubt', and one can almost always create doubt around intent unless the person blatantly states their intent.
Thus why 'ignorance of the law is no excuse' was basically adopted as a governor to the issue of intent or lack of knowledge. It basically stated 'neither of those things, even if true, are going to allow you to avoid conviction'.
But in fact Ignorance of the Law being an excuse was protected at the highest levels in what might be classified as White collar crimes.
Gov't in particular has very clear requirements in many areas that regardless of what laws are ACTUALLY broken that 'intent' must be established or the offender cannot be convicted. This almost always provides a legal out for the offender even after a law has been determined clearly to be broken.
And that seems to be the clear intent.
So is the foundational premise of Ignorance of the law not being an excuse a sham? Something created to make sure the typical perpetrator of non white collar crimes (typically poorer) would never avoid conviction while at the same time ensuring there was an out for the typical offender of white collar crimes (wealthy or powerful), particularly those in gov't?
Do you care?