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A subculture can create its own grammatical rules. Old English has different syntax to modern English. So modern English speakers are not following 'proper' English then??
That is a point people have made, and there is some truth to it, but I think it's not a perfect analogy to compare Modern English, which is more or less the same world-wide, grammatically speaking, officially taught in schools as a set of rules, to a relatively small and isolated group in the US who speak with a grammatical aberration.
I accept that they may have distinct rules, so within their framework it's proper, but it's not quite apt. To me, they're mostly conjugating verbs "differently" than the rest of the world.